Wouldn't the fatty acids in the oils take care of that either way?According to this website: Understanding starch functionality
All plant starches are made up of varying proportions of amylose and amylopectin. I did not know this! I read on another website that starches break down to simple sugars in acidic conditions. That could mean that using powdered starches with vinegar as a water replacement would produce different results compared with using starch water from cooking or starch mixed with water.
Plus, we would add more lye to counteract the acid in the vinegar so it all comes back to the same effect wouldn't it?
What I am trying to say is I would think the fatty acids, regardless of the vinegar, would make the starches act basically the same?
(More of a question than a statement though.)